In Chapter 3 of our book, Hume's antinomy is posed to us. Hume's antinomy is the pair of ideas that is possible for us to make critical judgements about works of art and that taste is the grounds for making those critical judgements.
Hume attempts to solve this antinomy by searching for a standard of taste. He describes taste as the sentiments of men with regard to beauty and deformity of all kinds even while their general discourse is the same. Hume is unable to solve the antinomy because he cannot seem to find a set standard of taste.
Is there a set standard of taste? Not that anyone knows of right now. Is it possible to set a definition of taste? The general principles of taste may be uniform, but making for rules for taste just like making rules for art seems impossible. Taste differs from individual to individual. A common rule cannot be found for taste, so how are we supposed to find a definition of art.
When we judge art, our personal taste is a very important factor. If we cannot define the factors that help us constitute how we judge art, is it even possible to define art?
Saturday, November 28, 2009
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